Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 06:01
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How come Jesus died on Friday and rose on Sunday? That's not 3 days and three nights.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Is it possible for buyers to negotiate after an inspection if the appraisal is lower than expected?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.